Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 15:24
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How old is planet Earth? Is it 4.5 billion years old or 6,000 years old?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why did the Soviet Jews hate the Soviet Union?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.