Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 00:27
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Would you date/marry a guy younger than you? If no, why not?
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Would you let your partner cheat on you every now and again?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.